The answer, no, is fairly easy to see,
especially using Lagrange's Theorem: if H is a subgroup of a
finite group G, then the order of H must be a divisor of the order of G. |
The divisors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6,
so proper subgroups must have order 2 or 3. |
A subgroup of order 2 contains only one element
in addition to the identity element. In Z6 the
only element that is its own inverse is 3, so the only subgroup of
order 2 is {0, 3}. |
Because 2 and 4 are inverses of one another, a subgroup H of order 3 that is different from
H2 must not contain 2 or 4. |
Suppose H contains 1. Closure implies H contains
1 + 1 = 2, impossible if H is different from H2. |
Suppose H contains 5. Closure implies
H contains 5 + 5 which is congruent to 4 (mod 6), impossible if H is
different from H2. |
This leaves the only possible elements of H as 0 and 3, but we have
seen these form the group H1, of order 2.
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Another easy consequence of Lagrange's theorem is that groups of prime order have no
proper subgroups. |